In a game of "jacks or better" to open, player A opens. He draws one card, then declares a win with a pair of sixes and a pair of threes. since he could have drawn one of the pairs, is his hand a winner?
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4Are you asking if it was legal for him to open? According to common rules of the game, he would have had to have at least two pair to open if he drew only one card. So, unless he was cheating, he drew a blank. As long as he shows down cards that beat a pair of jacks (which he did), it seems ok.– Chris FarmerSep 7, 2014 at 1:27
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@ChrisFarmer you have the start of a good answer there. Do you mind turning it into one ?– Radu MurzeaSep 7, 2014 at 10:28
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That's why it's a common rule in such games for the opener to always keep his discards, to prove that he opened legitimately. But I wouldn't doubt this particular case.– Lee Daniel CrockerNov 24, 2014 at 17:38
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1 Answer
Yes his hand is a legitimate opening hand thus the winner. Two pair is a legitimate opening hand, there is no practical way to determine if the player did not draw one card to a pair and kickers to make two pair. However we can safely assume that he was indeed drawing to two pair, if he drew one card than turned up the two pair at showdown.
There are no common sense situations were a player would open with one pair and draw one card. It is a horrible play, its cheating with a downside. So in a practical sense no one should even care if you opened with one pair and drew one card.
Not a real good question, it rarely if ever happens and has almost nothing to do with a real world scenario.
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if the player has jj+ and a straight or flush draw, he may split openers en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Draw_poker and draw to the come hand. Feb 8, 2015 at 0:36