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Referencing the following from this link http://www.rgpfaq.com/no-limit.html

Now let us consider when a player has gone all in with a partial raise. Other players may not reraise on a player's all in raise unless (a) it is a full raise or (b) they have not yet acted since the most recent full bet or raise. This is complicated so let's use an example.

Scenario 1 Suppose we have players A, B, and C in a game where the blinds are $5-10. Player A opens with a raise to $50 total chips (he matches the $10 blinds and raises by $40). Player B reraises all in for a total of $70 total chips (he calls the bet of $50 plus raises $20 more). Player C cold calls the $70. Player A can not reraise since Player B did not put in a legal raise. Player B raised by only $20 when he needed to match a raise of $40. Note that Player C could have raised if he desired, since he had not yet acted in response to the original bet.

Scenario 2 Now let us consider an example of when player A could reraise. Again we have players A, B, and C with the blinds at $5-10. Player A raises to a total of $40 chips (he matches the blind of $10 and raises by $30). Player B pushes all in with $70 (calls the $40 and raises by $30). Player C then cold calls. Player A can reraise as much as he wants because Player B has made a legal raise. Player B has matched the original raise amount of $30.

Here are my questions:

  1. In scenario 1 if Player C wanted to reraise since the previous raise by Player B was partial, what would be the minimum raise of Player C?
  2. In scenario 2 would it be correct to say Player A minimum reraise would be $100+?

Please note the above follows US rules and I'm aware of European rules difference.

Thanks

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3 Answers 3

up vote 1 down vote accepted
  1. 110$. 70 + 40. 70 is the last total amount, 40 is the last legal raise amount.

  2. 100$. 70 + 30. 70 is the last total amount, 30 is the last legal raise amount. Obviously a min 4bet is stupid here, but it is still a legal raise.

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In order to raise in No Limit the amount of chips that you wish to raise by must be at least as large as the last raise in the same round.

1) The minimum raise is $80, Since Player A put $40. Player B went all in with a partial raise (and it's not a legal raise).

2) The Player A minimum bet is $30 to cover the all in. (40+30 =70) The player A minimum raise is $30 since the last raise is $30. The total new chips added is 60.

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Your response to #2 doesn't make sense. Player A could raise by 30 if he so chooses (for a total of 100) because Player A's raise has to be at least as much as the last bet or raise. The last action was a raise of 30, to a total of 70. Therefore, the next action -- Player A's action -- could be a raise of 30, for a total of 100. –  Chris Farmer Aug 12 at 19:01
    
@ChrisFarmer I edited to clarify what I meant by re-raise. The player A has to add minimum 60 chips to the pot if he wants to reraise, or only 30 chips if he's calling. –  Roman Mik Aug 12 at 21:18

To look at it more simply you just think in terms of who can raise this partial raise and who cannot, and why this is so.

Any player who has already passed in making a raise by making a call, cannot raise the partial all in raise. Any player who has not already called the original raise still can raise this partial raise.

Consider the partial raise as one would a call in the sense of what options the other player would have. Whoever would be able to raise if the partial raise did not exist, still gets to raise, all others do not get to raise, they just get to call or fold.

Another way to put it is consider the two actions of fold and raise. The partial raise is not a raise in any way, it has all the properties of a call, with the one modifier that players have to call more.

A better name for it might be the all in over call because it is a call and not a raise, the terminology of partial raise kind of confuses the issue.

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