Which criterion did Sklansky use when dividing starting hands in groups? Computer generated starting hands seems to show a subjective grouping by Sklansky, doesn't it?
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From the book
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The Sklansky hand rating is also inclusive of post flop playability and implied odds. A simply equity calculation would render T8o better then 89s. This clearly isn't the case though. You have to consider how the hand flops relative to villain range, and it's post flop playability. Do not base hand ranking on pure jam equity because you will be ignoring too many other factors. A hand like 89s can flop flushes, straights etc, more often and better then T8o. Although preflop equity might show different, T8o is often useless postflop- even if you flop TP because you have to fold it too often. With 89s you will often have backdoor equity etc. |
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I use a "Q-T-8" standard that corresponds essentially to his Level 4 to open. That is no unsuited hands lower than KQ, no suited hands lower than JT, no pairs lower than 8. A level 3 hand would have suited hands down to KJ, QJ, and the 9-9 pair. Level 2 hands have suited hands down to Q's (AQ and KQ), and the pairs J-J and T-T. Level 1 hands have the three top pairs and the top suited hand, A-K. This standard was based on Sklansky's principles, and is a model of how "Sklansky" is SUPPOSED to work. The problem is that Sklansky himself sometimes goes against his own model. For instance, he and I believe that KQ, KJ, and KT off suit should be levels 4, 5, and 6 hands respectively (levels 2, 3, and 4 for the suited versions). But Sklansky then "deviates" for hands with aces by saying that AT offsuit should be level 5, AJ should be level 4, and AQ should be level 3, and AK should be level 2. I actually agree with AQ and AK, but would hold Sklansky to his "original" standard for AJ (level 5) and AT (level 6). I created the Q-T-8 model specifically to track Sklansky's deviations from his articulated standards. By design, it is "more royalist than the king, more Catholic than the pope." |
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Of course, it was his experience which guided Sklansky for the grouping. So yes, he did it "subjectively" and not by some formula. Also, he didn't have the preflop jam equity in mind, but rather the expected amount of money the hand typically wins. On page 19 of "Hold'em Poker" you find:
Furthermore, you can read there that he assumes a full ring playing limit poker.
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