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5

You also have to take into account whether you are playing a tournament or Cashgame. For tournaments, the ruling is as described by Radu Murzea In Cashgames, there is usually no showdown until the river is dealt. The player who has gone all in has to show his cards first. The player who called can then still muck his cards if he cannot beat his opponents ...


5

The rule is: The cards must be shown in the case of all-in when there are no more possible moves (fold/check/bet/raise) to be made by any of the players that are in the hand. Now, this happens when: all the chips of the participanting players are in the pot there is only player in the hand that has chips. This is so because, since he's the only one left ...


4

You haven't provided enough information. This is entirely dependent on what the action was leading to the all-in, current stack sizes, and the frequency with which your opponent is taking said action. I can tell you, just from experience, that your opponent would either need to be very short stacked, ~13-15BB or less, or jamming all-in with a very wide ...


1

This would not count as a misdeal since the outcome of the hand would not have been changed. If you are playing a cash game it makes no difference what you do. If you're playing a home game/casino game simply let the house deal with and dispute. In this instance you didn't do anything wrong. I suspect the misdeal call had a "crap I don't have a hand" ...


1

After reading the question and your own response (http://poker.stackexchange.com/a/2704/88), it doesn't seem that much of a problem. Firstly, you don't have to show your hand at all, ever. Although, if you don't you can't "claim" the hand. You must show a winning hand to take a pot. That's a general rule. Secondly, the order of play matters in this case ...



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