1,251 reputation
39
bio website
location
age
visits member for 2 years, 11 months
seen yesterday

Feb
7
comment Are mucked and burnt cards significant in odds calculation?
@Chris Marasti-Georg: I don't disagree with you that one would need to determine how "significant" it is but... It's apparently sufficiently significant to make the community cards not follow a true random distribution. And it's also apparently sufficiently significant to change the odds of AKo vs low pocket pairs from "slightly underdog" to "slightly favorite" in the case Barry Greenstein outlined. And these are just two examples, there are probably many more where people have been able to notice "weird" results/numbers. All I'm saying is that it's more complicated than it looks like : )
Feb
6
comment Are mucked and burnt cards significant in odds calculation?
see my comment to Chris' answer. For folded cards, there's more to it then simply "it's not significant". There have been studies made using billions of online hands on the subject. It's hard and even harder to model due to what is know as the "card removal effect" ; )
Feb
6
comment Are mucked and burnt cards significant in odds calculation?
@Chris Marasti-Georg: Barry Greenstein talk about this "card removal effect" and states this in one of his books: "as players fold (preflop), the probability of an Ace or King coming on the board increases". It can be seen this way too: hands that are folded preflop are not randomly distributed (because AA, KK, QQ, etc. should be part of a random distribution, but in this case they're not, because they're not folded preflop etc.).
Feb
6
comment Are mucked and burnt cards significant in odds calculation?
@Chris Marasti-Georg: I agree about burnt cards but OP also mentioned folded (...there's some chance some of our cards have been folded by our opponents...) / mucked cards. There have been extensive discussions in "poker theory" forums (and on Usenet) about the difficulty to correctly model the fact that there's a near 100% probability that opponents who are folding preflop without betting anything aren't holding premium hands. And this definitely does have an influence: it's been proved AFAIR that due to the card removal effect, community cards, for example, aren't evenly distributed.
Feb
2
comment Ante + BB all-in, what can the BB win?
yup of course, which is why I commented right above: the following: "you could say the person who raised to 1000 did really raise to 1040". I take it that your answer is correct but I'm still curious: I'd like to find a hand history where that specific case happens, just to see : )
Feb
1
comment Ante + BB all-in, what can the BB win?
but ante aren't really chips you "risk": you're not only forced to put them in, but they also do not count as part of the amount you have to match. If you ante 40 and someone raises to 1000, you then have to risk 1000 to see a flop, not 960 (sure, you could say the person who raised to 1000 did really raise to 1040 but that's not how people --nor hand histories-- do count, hence my question) :-/
Feb
1
comment Ante + BB all-in, what can the BB win?
@John Dibling: BB had 45 before the deal. So he put 40 of ante and 5 as a "big blind" (5 instead of 400). That said there are 8 people putting in an ante of 40 and three people putting an addition 5 or more. My question is really if the BB would be winning 15 or 335. Even if it's tiny in both case compared to the blinds ; )
Feb
1
comment Set Mining: betting pre flop with 22+
@k to the z: "When I set mine I usually raise...". If you're raising you're not really set mining ; ) And flopping a set cannot possibly be the sole purpose of raising preflop with a PP: very often when you raise preflop you win the blinds (no matter if you have 72o or AA)...
Jan
26
comment What does “run it twice” mean?
@Svisstack: "run it twice" was available on small stakes (and mid- and high-) tables back when Full Tilt Poker was operating. (the option didn't exist on micro-stakes tables that said). : )
Jan
26
comment Standing of all-in losers in a tournament
@Adam Dymitruk: so what happens in the hypothetical case where the players had the same stack size prior to the hand? : )
Jan
23
comment Who can play on www.pokerstars.it?
@Beofett: my point was that this is not a poor question but a very legitimate question (with legal implications etc.) that is very common on big poker forums because a lot of players want to know the answer to this. And it's not "too localized": it does concern most players: it's not because, in this case, only italian players can play on pokerstars.it that the answer is not interesting to a lot of players (especially seen the gigantic fish pond and the amazing money to be made on pokerstars.it due to the very bad playing field).
Jan
22
comment Who can play on www.pokerstars.it?
@Robert Cartaino: it's only localized because, in this case, they don't allow players outside of .it. But there are other sites where this isn't the case. For example: Q: "who can play on Winamax.fr?" A: "anyone in europe" (it's just an example to make a point: an online site concerning a lot of europeans isn't too localized). If people keep downvoting and closing questions that have answers then the 4 questions / per on average, in freefall since the 2nd day the site went live, will keep freefalling and it's StackExchange Poker that can be closed... Just my $0.02 continuation bet ;)
Jan
22
comment What is the purpose of a continuation bet, and when is it best applied in Hold'em?
@Toby Booth: but at 4 questions per day on average if people keep downvoting the only questions that comes in this site is dead... Maybe the attitude should be relaxed a bit to try to get some traffic.
Jan
13
comment Preflop range for representing the nuts on every board?
+1 but why is this question still at -1 if this answer is at +3? How can people consider this answer interesting and the question not interesting? I'm a poker enthusiast and I consider both this answer and the question to be interesting...
Jan
12
comment What is the usual ruling on an aggressor folding on the river?
@JeffreyBlake: also note that I did never wrote that anyone would be going to fish for cards in the muck : ) But I'm pretty sure about the rule about killing cards by touching the muck and then turning them face up (and the dealer is supposed to kill both cards by making them both touch the muck)... There are definitely cases where you can see this (cards touching the muck and getting killed/burnt then getting turned face up for whatever reason). The rules may vary from one place to another, but I'm definitely not making things up here : )
Jan
12
comment What is the usual ruling on an aggressor folding on the river?
@Jeffrey Blake: "I have never player in a casino that did allowed fishing cards out of the much" [sic]. When someone folds and you ask to see his hand (either because you suspect cheating or because the player agrees to show his hand), the dealer should take the cards, touch the muck as to "burn" the cards and then show them. So that if the folding player has a better hand he doesn't end up winning a pot in which he folded. If the cards weren't burnt he can still claim pot. I even think that if only one card is burnt, the player can still claim the pot if his non-burt card makes a win.
Jan
12
comment What is the usual ruling on an aggressor folding on the river?
@Jeffrey Blake: I agree with that other answer of yours but not with your comment. In the other answer you're correctly saying that if Bob folds, he has to "hope that Alice will take the pot without further incident". You then go on to say that players (including the one not at showdown btw) can to see the hand of any player at showdown. However your comment here make if sound like Alice doesn't have the right Bob's card in Nick Johnson's example. I think Alice, even if it's bad etiquette, has every right to call floor if the dealer refuses to show Bob's hand upon Alice's request.
Jan
12
comment Preflop range for representing the nuts on every board?
(besides pocket pairs of course)
Jan
12
comment Preflop range for representing the nuts on every board?
if I understand your question correctly, is it safe to assume that the range you're after does not include any offsuit card? For example any time you could represent the nuts on a board where AKo would be the nuts (e.g. Qc Js Td 6s 2h) then if AKs is in your range AKs is "better" than AKo because it helps to "minimize" your hypothetical range?
Jan
12
comment Preflop range for representing the nuts on every board?
"If he does not have the 9s in his hand, his opponent could have the 9s"... Once again I think that is not OP's question at all. OP's question would be "If on any board an opponent doesn't have the nuts, what range should I play so that I could potentially have the nuts". At least that's how I'm understanding OP's question.