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I had played a $1-$2 nl game. I had a hand where I raised from late position. I was dealt 6♣ 7♣ and raised to $12. Only the small blind and big blind called me.

The flop came T♥ 6⋄ 7⋄ .

The small blind bet $15, the big blind called, and I raised to $75. The small blind called and the big blind folded.

The turn card was a 4♠

The small blind went all in for $195.

I decided to fold.

Do you think that was the correct play? I thought maybe he flopped a straight draw.

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  • Could there be a typo in your question? a raise to $15 is below the min raise so that would not be allowed.
    – nosyarg
    Aug 1, 2022 at 17:00
  • @nosyarg Its not below the min raise. The SB led out (donked). They could've bet $2 if they wanted to.
    – Toby Booth
    Mar 27, 2023 at 17:06

2 Answers 2

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There is no objective response to "is it the correct play?", there are a lot of factors that would influence the answer.

I don't understand why you open 6BB, 2x to 3x is more standard.

As we don't know anything about the villain, but as he donk bets the flop and goes all-in on the turn, for me it implies a strong hand :

  • Any pair who touch the flop, who went crazy
  • Two pair on the turn, who went crazy
  • Top pair with a good kicker, who went crazy

I think you did well to fold in this situation, but with these bets who only implies in value, villain doesn't show a good level and will be punished soon.

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  • Your last sentence is unclear. If villain had those hands unless he had two pair with the 10, OP is ahead, and it's a bad fold.
    – Herb
    Jan 13, 2022 at 16:24
  • Being "ahead" after the fact is silly. I would have folded too. Jul 7, 2022 at 5:51
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Let's say villain flopped a monster here, like a set or a straight. Wouldn't they re-raise you on the flop given that a diamond on the turn is an action killer? And if they decided to call instead, it would presumably be to let you continue betting a worse hand. Donking on a relatively harmless turn would seem to defeat the purpose of calling instead of raising on the flop. Given this, the only value hands that makes sense are 85 and 53 that hit a straight on the turn. Neither of these hands should be in villain's calling range preflop, which of course does not guarantee that they aren't, but we should at least discount them some. In other words: Villain is representing an extremely narrow value range. Now, what hand would make sense for villain to be bluffing with? The obvious answer is any flush draw. Maybe villain called on the flop hoping to hit a diamond on the turn. When they didn't, and realising that they didn't have pot odss to check call an all-in bet, they decided to donk instead. Given that you unblock diamonds, and block a set of sixes and a set of sevens, I think the correct play is to call.

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