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I'm learning MIT's Poker Theory and Analytics class. I don't understand the following argument in pre-flop analysis:

M < 10 is basically push or fold – Why not raise? A bet of 3BB (i.e. 2 M) lets you fold to a re-raise if it’s as much as 6M (i.e. giving you pot odds of 8 / 20 or 40%). You can fold 99- A5- K9- on a very small margin. Less than 4M remaining gives you pot odds of 4 / 12 or 30% which is basically always a call. So maximizing fold equity is most important.

So here M stands for M-ratio. I don't understand how exactly the pot odds in two scenarios are calculated. Could someone tell me the complete hand history the lecturer was referring to?

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IMHO, part of the advantage of raising all in, is being able to win un-contested. and the smaller a raise, the less likely one is too win uncontested. at 10 M's and below, you simply doo not have enough chips to be a threat and, and you should push, instead of making weak calls hoping to flop a hand, time to fix bayonets and make that noble last stand to turn the war. personally if I am short I am looking for a hand, a big part of the decision is if I am first in or not. the earlier the better, want people making a decision on making a cold call.

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