3

I don't understand that when sometimes I play, instead of a pot being split as I would anticipate, one one player gets the full pot.

Even if the best hand seems to be in the middle - i.e - a pair.

I hold an ace and 6

my opponent holds an ace 7

but in middle there is 2, 2, q, 3, 4 (no flushes).

So wouldnt the best hand be split between us because we both have a 2 pair and a queen as a high card?

  • possible duplicate of What tie breakers exist? – Paul Mar 10 '15 at 16:06
  • I'm wondering why this was downvoted, it's a good question. – user1165 Mar 10 '15 at 16:23
  • Poker hands have EXACTLY 5 CARDS, no more, no less. Your hand is 2-2-A-Q-6, his hand is 2-2-A-Q-7. – Lee Daniel Crocker Mar 10 '15 at 18:20
  • It likely was downvoted because this same question or one very like it is asked (and answered) every day. And because even a cursory Google search will answser it. The Wikipedia articles on Poker, in particular, are very clear on these points. – Lee Daniel Crocker Mar 10 '15 at 18:29
6

In the example you give both players have 1 pair. Poker is the best 5 card hand. Your best hand would be 2,2,A,Q,6 your opponents best hand would be 2,2,A,Q,7.

Therefore his 7 would "out kick" your 6.

However, if the board was 2,2,3,3,Q

You both would share the best hand 2,2,3,3,A and the pot would therefore be split

  • But wouldn't the ace still beat the queen in the best overall 5 card hand? Why does the Ace not kick out the queen? – Seb Mar 10 '15 at 3:23
  • 2
    Again, poker hands have EXACTLY 5 CARDS, no more, no less. I should make this a keyboard macro since a question like this comes up here at least once a day. – Lee Daniel Crocker Mar 10 '15 at 18:21

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