I believe the answer for scenario 1 is just under 63%, as I think you can just treat the game as if you just get dealt a 5 card hand, ignoring the fact that the first draw has happened. Even though when you draw to your final hand, there are 5 cards in the deck you cannot hit, this should affect the overall odds as those first 5 cards are also random. This should therefore also be the payout if you hold all 5 every hand.
/-----------------------------------------------------------------------\
| Hand | Combinations | Odds | Payout | RTP |
|-----------------+--------------+--------------+--------+--------------|
| Royal Flush | 4 | 0.0000015391 | 800 | 0.0012312617 |
| Straight Flush | 36 | 0.0000138517 | 50 | 0.0006925847 |
| Four of a Kind | 624 | 0.0002400960 | 25 | 0.0060024010 |
| Full House | 3,744 | 0.0014405762 | 9 | 0.0129651861 |
| Flush | 5,108 | 0.0019654015 | 6 | 0.0117924093 |
| Straight | 10,200 | 0.0039246468 | 4 | 0.0156985871 |
| Three of a Kind | 54,912 | 0.0211284514 | 3 | 0.0633853541 |
| Two Pair | 123,522 | 0.0475274725 | 2 | 0.0950549451 |
| Jacks or Better | 1,098,240 | 0.4225690276 | 1 | 0.4225690276 |
| Nothing | 1,302,540 | 0.5011773940 | 0 | 0.0000000000 |
|-----------------+--------------+--------------+--------+--------------|
| Total | 2,598,930 | 1.0000000000 | N/A | 0.6293917567 |
\-----------------------------------------------------------------------/
As for scenario 2, that would require some more work, so perhaps someone else will take that up for you.