According to this site:

  • K♠️7♠️ beats A♠️2♠️ 39.10% of the time (and ties 0.62%).
  • K♠️8♠️ beats A♠️2♠️ 38.71% of the time (and ties 0.61%).

Why is this?

I expected the two probabilities to be the same. My reasoning was: For any community cards such that K♠️7♠️ beats A♠️2♠️, we can replace all community 7's with 8's, and find an equally likely set of community cards such that K♠️8♠️ beats A♠️2♠️.

1 Answer 1


K7 steals one winner from A2

K7 wins 3456 and K8 does not

K8 does not steal 4567 as A2 does not have a piece of it

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