1

At a fun, but serious, tournament a question came up as to how large the call needs to be in response to an All-In bet. Please advise. Facts:
Big blind = 1000
Small blind = 500
Following the flop the first bettor (after the dealer) is all-in with 300. Are subsequent callers required to match the 300 bet OR required to call with a minimum of the Big Blind (1000)?

3

Not only is the bet still 1,000 but other players are able to raise that 1,000 if they wish to also. Going all in for less than the big blind does not affect any of the other player's betting abilities, nor does it change the minimum amount they have to call.

In this case there will also be a side pot. The player all-in for 300 can only win 300 from each player.

  • I also contacted Pokerstars and they (after some back and forth communication) say the bet is 300 and other players wishing to call only are "required" to put in 300 but they are free to put in 1000 for a minimum raise or any other value in conformance with standard bet/raise rules – Larry Ballard Jan 26 '18 at 17:18
  • @LarryBallard I would not go by Pokerstars as a canonical answer. I think they had to shut down for a while and faced some serious charges. – paparazzo Jan 26 '18 at 20:18
  • The bet is absolutely not 300, the bet was made before cards were dealt by the big blind. – Grinch91 Jan 26 '18 at 23:54
  • I don't know what a "canonical answer" is but Pokerstars is the largest on-line poker site in the world you would think they would have the definitive answer. – Larry Ballard Jan 29 '18 at 1:21
  • 1
    @LarryBallard The current bet is 1000 from the BB. $300 was a call that did not cover the bet. – paparazzo Jan 29 '18 at 12:13
1

WIKI Betting

If a player is all in for part of a blind, all antes go into the main pot. Players to act must call the complete amount of the big blind to call, even if the all-in player has posted less than a full big blind. At the end of the betting round, the bets and calls will be divided into the main pot and side pot as usual.

  • If this was the first round of betting after the deal your answer would be correct but as I said this is after the flop, the second round of betting, and the 300 is the first bet there has not been any other bet which would have needed to be =< the BB – Larry Ballard Feb 3 '18 at 0:48
  • @LarryBallard Take it up with WIKI – paparazzo Feb 3 '18 at 6:36
  • since wiki is referring to antes they must also be referring to the first round so their comment may not be applicable to subsequent rounds – Larry Ballard Feb 4 '18 at 7:01
  • this is the problem I'm having there is no clear answer to the question which is surprising since this situation happens quite often – Larry Ballard Feb 4 '18 at 7:06
  • Happen quite often? It should never happen. 4 BB or less pre is push or fold. – paparazzo Feb 4 '18 at 14:19

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.