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Feb 1, 2016 at 10:05 vote accept Kriem
Feb 1, 2016 at 10:05 comment added Kriem Thanks! This thread has kept me from getting a good night's sleep ;)
Jan 30, 2016 at 21:27 comment added Daniel To calculate at least 2 aces you sum (exactly4 + exactly3 + exactly2)
Jan 30, 2016 at 21:23 comment added Daniel eg. 5 players = 8 cards delt. You care about number of card combinations - en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Combination 0 aces - possible combinations with no ace - (46!/((46-8)!*8!)) divided by the total possible combinations - (50!/((50-8)!*8!)) exactly 1 ace - combinations of chosing 1 ace = 4 multiplied by the combinations of choosing the other 7: 46!/((46-7)!*7!) divided by the total number of combinations(same as for 0) exactly 2 aces - (combos of choosing 2 aces = 6) x (46!/((46-6)!*6!)) / total:(50!/((50-8)!*8!)) exactly 3 aces - 4 x (46!/((46-5)!*5!)) / total
Jan 30, 2016 at 20:10 comment added paparazzo Can you show your calcs?
Jan 29, 2016 at 22:08 comment added Dr.DrfbagIII Well done, sir.
Jan 29, 2016 at 21:20 comment added Daniel Third time's the charm :)
Jan 29, 2016 at 21:19 history edited Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed calculation errors for 3-rd and 4-th columns
Jan 29, 2016 at 19:07 comment added Dr.DrfbagIII I finally tried out doing this whole table for myself and mine matches your exactly in the 0-aces, at-least-1-ace, and 4-aces columns but does not for the other two columns, especially as the number of players goes up. The thing that looks fishy now is that for the 10-players row, it's implied that there's only a 9% chance of there being exactly one ace, but 58% chance of there being exactly two? FYI, I tried it in Excel with the HYPEGEOMDIST function.
Jan 29, 2016 at 18:44 history edited Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0
fixed content and clarification
Jan 29, 2016 at 17:43 comment added Dr.DrfbagIII I don't think this is quite right...I'd be interested in seeing how you did it. For the 2players-0aces, this should simply be (46/50)(45/49)(44/48)(43/47) = .709 which doesn't match your .828. Also, on the 10 players line, I see that you have the odds of 4 aces being dealt as higher than the odds of zero aces being dealt, but just intuitively it seems like that inequality should be go the opposite way since less than half the deck is being dealt out.
Jan 29, 2016 at 16:56 history answered Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0