0

In a friendly 7-card stud game, after more than a few cards had been dealt, there was a misdeal. We all agreed, no problem. BUT I had already folded before the misdeal. I was not allowed in the re-deal. Was that a correct call?

4
  • No casino would operate this way. If the dealing error happened early in the initial deal, before any players have acted, then the deal can be cancelled and it's just as if it had never happened. If there was in fact action (say, the low card posted the bring-in, and a player after that folded), there there's no longer any such thing as a misdeal, and the hand must be played to conclusion by whatever means are most fair. Aug 20, 2019 at 21:21
  • What was exactly the "misdeal"? Because the solution can be different on each case. Did one player that had yet to act get an extra card? Did he get one card less than he should? Was a card from the deck accidentally shown to the players?
    – David
    Aug 21, 2019 at 15:08
  • A card was shown to a player and then buried in the deck. Then a misdeal was called that we all agreed to. Then I was barred from the re-deal.
    – William
    Aug 21, 2019 at 16:05
  • This from a post about the rules of misdeal: "In a misdeal, the re-deal is an exact re-play" Doesn't this mean that all players for the 1st deal are in for the re-deal? Even those who had already folded?
    – William
    Aug 21, 2019 at 16:15

2 Answers 2

1

that is the beauty of a friendly game, any call is the correct call as long as you and your friends agree on it. I think if there was a misdeal, it should have been noticed before you were able to fold your hand (Like I think @Lee Daniel Crocker is saying). In this situation where I don't know exactly what happened for the misdeal, I think that they should not redeal the whole hand. Maybe they can show an exposed card for the rest of the hand or have someone give back an extra card before they have looked at it. At the end of the day, it is really up to you and your friends to find what is fair and agreeable to everyone, compromise if you have to.

2
  • somehow i dont think declaring a misdeal, while enforcing previous actions, can be considered "correct call" :|. Sounds like OP got scammed.
    – sakon
    Aug 21, 2019 at 6:46
  • @sakon I would not call it a scam, but something like that could definitely be happening here. I made the assumption that this was a friendly game where none of the players are out to get one another.
    – Clarko
    Aug 22, 2019 at 2:58
0

If the misdeal consists only of a card accidentally showed to a player, what casinos often do is showing it to everyone and removing it from the deck

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.