I was thinking about calculating the probability of flopping straights, with certain hands.
First, I thought about situations: obviously the difference between two cards can't be higher than 4.
If the difference is 4 we need the three ranks between them so:
((12/50)*(8/49)*(4/48))*6 = 0.0195 = 1.95% - would this be correct? My thought process: at the first card of the flop the first card can be any of the three ranks, thus 12, second card of the flop can only be two different ranks, thus 8, and last card of the flop only one card rank, thus 4. Multiplied with 6 because the different combinations. For example: my card 6T, flop can be 789, 798, 879, 897, 987, 978.
From now on I will use examples because it is easier to explain that way.
If difference is 3: my cards 7T. Possible flops that would form a straight: 689, 698, 896, 869, 986, 968, J89, J98, 89J, 8J9, 98J, 9J8. With the same logic the calculation would be:
((16/50)*(8/49)*(4/48))*12 = 0.052 = 5.2% , which seems wrong... What is wrong with my calculation - I'd like to calculate too for difference of 1 and 2.