1

Game is 50NL six max. Villain in early position raises to $1.75 (3.5xBB) pre-flop. All fold up to hero. Hero is on button. Hero's stack is $65. Villain's stack is $50. Hero has Villain on following HUD stats:

AF     = 5    (agression factor)
AFQ    = 48%  (agression factor frequency)
RFI    = 13%  (raise first in)
Fv3Bet = 89%  (fold vs 3 bet)
FCB    = 65%  (flop continuation bet)
TCB    = 65%  (turn continuation bet)
FCR    = 0%   (flop continuation bet)

Question

Should hero fold, call, or 3 bet with following hands: QQ, AQ, 98s, JTo?

Aggression Factor Analysis

Could be wrong, but villain's aggression factor seems high. Villain bets or raises 5x as much villain calls.

Aggression Frequency Analysis

Still not sure what difference between aggression factor and aggression frequency is.

Raise First In Analysis

Raise first in makes me think villain might a tight range here, maybe too tight.

Fold vs 3 Bet Analysis

Villain seems super foldy here in my opinion. Villain folds way to often to counter bets (3 bets specially).

Continuation Bet Analysis

Non applicable.

Conclusion

I think that villain is a tight aggressive but also a nit. Villain does not bet often except on strong ranges. When villain does bet, villain folds to easily to 3 bets. Villain's strategy is to bet hard on good ranges / flops then folds to 3 bets even with good cards. I would 3 bet villain on QQ, AQ, 98s, and JTo. Do you agree / disagree? Why?

edit

Good point on sample sizes. This problem is from a work book so I think it's reasonable to assume the sample sizes are large enough to be solid. Some stats needs large sample sizes, so that's something I should be aware of for sure.

1

The answers to your questions will vary drastically based on your HUD sample size for each stat. I will continue assuming that you have you have at least 50+ hands for each stat (which I doubt is true) and that you have at least 500+ hands on him overall.

Should hero fold, call, or 3 bet with following hands: QQ, AQ, 98s, JTo?

3bet QQ, AQ, and 98s 100% of the time, 3-bet JTo 25% and fold JTo 75% of the time. villain is a super nit to 3-bets which means we print money by 3-betting him a ton. To balance out all the garbage 3-betting hands we use against him we need to 3-bet all are premium hands as well. Typically you never want to call in this exact situation unless: there is a fish in the blinds that you want to play with, or there is an aggressive 4-better in the blinds, or if you are worried about getting shoved on by a short stack in the blinds.

Could be wrong, but villain's aggression factor seems high. Villain bets or raises 5x as much villain calls.

This stat basically means nothing. I have never watch a poker video explaining its value, nor have I read anything online. I would ignore it unless you really know what you are talking about.

Still not sure what difference between aggression factor and aggression frequency is.

Doesn't matter because both give us no information

Raise first in makes me think villain might a tight range here, maybe too tight.

What? For 6 max utg? 13% is super standard imo. If you are playing more than 15% utg in 6-max you need to seriously reconsider your ranges.

Villain seems super foldy here in my opinion. Villain folds way to often to counter bets (3 bets specially).

I agree completely @ the first question for details.

Continuation Bet Analysis

You are right, C-bet stat is completely irrelevant in this situation, especially considering the fact that we are never flat calling against him. C-bet % only applies when villain is the preflop aggressor.

All this is assuming you have valid sample sizes. Everything I just said goes out the window otherwise.

PS its nit, not knit...

0

Should hero fold, call, or 3 bet with following hands: QQ, AQ, 98s, JTo?

With QQ and AQ, definitely. With 98s and JTo I wouldn't.

Could be wrong, but villain's aggression factor seems high. Villain bets or raises 5x as much villain calls.

You didn't say anything about the number of hands you have on him, VPIP, PFR and other few stats so I don't know.

Still not sure what difference between aggression factor and aggression frequency is.

This answers all of your questions

Raise first in makes me think villain might a tight range here, maybe too tight.

I don't know. I don't have any number of hands, VPIP nor PFR.

Villain seems super foldy here in my opinion. Villain folds way to often to counter bets (3 bets specially).

How do you know?

Do you agree / disagree? Why?

I don't know what to say, because of the aforementioned reasons. All I can say for certain is that I would 3bet him, IP, with QQ+ and AQ+.

  • 1
    Assuming you have a valid sample size, RFI is vastly more telling about villains range in a particular spot when compared to VPIP or PFR. – Jane Mar 7 at 5:37

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.